Posted by: arthenor | August 8, 2009

Freewill, Evil, and Eternity

My recent post God, Evil, and Original Sin has received several responses. James from AnAtheist.net responds in Free Will & Sin, positing that limited freewill could conceivably allow both freewill and a lack of evil. In the comments on my blog, the Conversational Atheist asks the question: “Do you have free will when you get to heaven?” Qohelet asks a similar question in commenting on James’s reply.

Freewill and the Problem of Evil

In Free Will & Sin, James presents an argument and supporting analogy in an attempt to demonstrate that the ability to will evil is not strictly necessary for freewill. His argument is essentially that any physical limitations we have already limit our will, and therefore restricting our capacity to do evil would not limit freewill in any unique way in which it is not already limited. To support this argument, he presents an analogy between our ability to fly and our ability to do evil.

This analogy confuses will and ability. We can certainly will to fly, but we lack the ability. To use James’s terminology, we have the ability to choose to fly, but we lack the ability to actually fly. Will, therefore, is not dependent on ability as James suggests. It is therefore possible to will something beyond one’s ability to perform it. Therefore, our inability to fly does not represent a limitation on freewill which God could have merely extended to include sin.

While the analogy is faulty, James’s point is at least initially a reasonable one. It does seem conceptually possible for God to have created a world in which humans were free to choose certain things, such as what good work to perform on a particular day or pick a favorite color, but be unable to will to perform an evil deed. However, there are two objections to this:

First, as argued in my initial post, this would not be true freedom. Humanity would essentially be much like Isaac Asimov’s robots governed by the three laws. We would be good, not of our own choosing, but only because God forced us to be so.

Second, at least in the Bible, the most important choice there is is to choose to obey or disobey God. In other words, the primary purpose of granting freewill is to allow us to choose Him. Giving us freewill without the ability to choose against Him would defeat that purpose.

Other Remarks

James also disagrees with my post in two points:

Prior Knowledge of Good and Evil

Your claim is that she had knowledge that eating the fruit was wrong before she had knowledge of right and wrong. That would be like telling my dog that barking is wrong and wondering why she still does it. – James

False. My claim is that she did know right (obey God; do not eat of the tree) from wrong (disobey God; eat of the tree) beforehand and that the phrase “knowledge of good and evil would be better understood as “discerning good from evil”. It is invalid to argue that my argument is absurd by substituting one’s own premises for mine. We can debate whether my premise regarding the proper interpretation of the phrase translated as “knowledge of good and evil” is, but the fact that our premises differ and James’s premises conflict with my conclusion does not make my argument invalid or absurd because it is not based on those premises.

Determining or Knowing Good and Evil

Rather than addressing my argument on the proper understanding of the original word “yada” in the passage of the creation and fall, James essentially begs the question, assuming his interpretation is correct because it is “obvious” that the Bible is “a primitive attempt” by ancient people to explain certain concepts and that my argument was essentially false because it was too complicated.

That the story is obviously a primitive attempt to explain various aspects of humanity is clearly not as obvious as James would like it to be. What is obvious is that if one insists on interpreting the Bible through the assumption that it is a primitive and absurd book, one can certainly arrive at primitive and absurd conclusions by insisting on simplistic interpretations rather than entertaining the possibility that the Bible might be reasonable. However, that assumption is far from justified.

The argument I presented may not prove with certainty that the passage must be understood in the manner I described, but it does demonstrate that there is good reason to understand it in a different way than James suggests. This interpretation presents a much more consistent and sensible conclusion, undermining his claim that this passage is necessarily absurd.

Freewill in Eternity

Regarding the question of freewill for the saved in eternity, I am not aware of a statement in the Bible which directly answers the question of freewill in eternity. I think the general assumption is that the process of sanctification (essentially, putting off the sin nature) which is completed upon entry into heaven renders believers into a state in which, while they could sin, they never will again. However, I think a good case can be made which suggests that freewill will be at least limited in heaven.

The primary reason is this: if it is true that evil must be a possible side-effect of freewill, evil would be possible in heaven. The possibility of evil implies the possibility of suffering, which is denied in heaven. If there is no possibility of suffering, there must be no possibility of evil, which implies a lack of full freewill. Freewill may exist in a limited form, such as James suggests in “Free Will & Sin”, but this argument presents a reasonable case against the kind of freewill we have now. The idea that sanctification produces believers who have full freewill, but simply will not sin sounds a lot like Adam and Eve’s original state in the garden, a state in which they were clearly capable of sinning.

Qohelet argues that this conclusion contradicts the necessity and importance of freewill that I argued for above and in my original post. This is not so and it seems to me the reason helps to explain why as Rhodes said, a world which includes evil is the best possible path to the best possible world. If, as argued above, freewill implies the possibility or even the probability of evil, the best possible world, that is, one in which there is no evil and therefore no suffering, is one in which freewill is at least not absolute. However, if another property of the optimal world is its inhabitants freely choosing to love and obey God, freewill is necessary for that optimal world, but can not coexist with it. Therefore, one can not begin with an optimal world. Freewill and lack of suffering are incompatible. Therefore, the optimal world must be preceded by a sub-optimal world with freewill, by which people can freely choose to love and obey God, making the optimal world possible.

Given the importance of freewill in most Christians understanding of the world, sin, and the gospel, this is certainly an important question. I would be interested in any views, comments, or insights other readers might have on this topic. :)


Responses

  1. Ok, I’m not sure that I follow. Let’s take a specific example. What happens to a newborn infant who dies? Does it get to go to heaven? Or does the newborn go straight to hell and exist in an *undesirable state* for eternity?

    If it goes to heaven, does it have the limited free will that you claim is in heaven?

    Does this newborn who is in heaven, have a kind of existential sadness in knowing that it never had the “full free will” to make others suffer? And if this newborn is less than perfectly happy with heaven… God’s paradise could be improved?

    I can’t think of a way that this makes sense, so I’ll stop trying to anticipate and let you tell me what happens.

  2. The case of newborns seems like a complex or problematic case rather than an example case. What in my post is unclear?

    How salvation relates to those clearly incapable of making a choice is another case in which the Bible is not explicit. When King David’s infant dies, he does remark that “I [David} shall go to him, but he shall not return to me” (2 Sam. 12:23). This verse and passages which affirm that God is just and wants to save everyone, it is reasonable to conclude that those who never had the capacity to be saved will not be damned. The most frequent guess that I have heard is that God simply saves them. Whatever the case is, if we accept God as presented in the Bible, it seems clear that He will handle this case reasonably and justly.

    As this relates to the freewill arguments I presented in the last two posts, the case of infants may be a good counter-argument in support of the premise that complete freewill persists into eternity without producing sin. However, exactly how God handles either of these cases is not fully explained.

    What this really demonstrates is that God has provided a limited amount of revelation focusing primarily on what we need to know now. While we can speculate in areas in which He has not been explicit or has provided only a few hints, we can not be certain.

  3. I’m fine with uncertainty — but if I can create a dilemma properly then one of the conclusions obtains regardless of our uncertainty.

    Let’s assume that an infant (or the youngest that an ensouled human can be) goes to heaven upon its death.

    This infant either has free will in heaven, or it does not have free will in heaven.

    If the infant has free will in heaven — then, there exists an example of a human having free will without having the ability to make others suffer. Therefore, human suffering is not a necessary requirement of a human having free will.

    If the infant does not have free will in heaven — subdilemma: this infant and God are perfectly satisfied with the infant’s existence in heaven, OR the infant or God is not perfectly satisfied with the infant’s existence in heaven.

    If the infant or God is not perfectly satisfied with the infant’s existence in heaven; then … heaven is suboptimal (bite that bullet if you want).

    If the infant and God is perfectly satisfied with the infant’s existence in heaven; then both God and humans are fine with humans being ushered into heaven without free will. The question that comes screaming to the fore: why, then, do we humans have free will?

  4. – If Free –

    In the case of freewill in heaven, the view does not maintain that there is a lack of ability to cause suffering. It simply maintains that people won’t. In other words, we can sit here worrying about the possibility, but God simply knows it isn’t an issue. Those who are saved could sin but won’t. Therefore, suffering would be possible and was actualized in the case of Adam and Eve, but simply won’t be actualized in eternity. The argument is not that suffering is necessary, but merely that it be possible. As stated previously, given Adam and Eve’s example, I am rather skeptical of that conclusion, but it is possible.

    – If Not Free –

    The case of an infant is a special, constrained case. The fact that both God and the infant may be optimally satisfied with the outcome given those constraints does not imply, as you suggest, that under different constraints, the same solution would be optimal. In more concrete terms, while God desires free agents to freely trust Him, the fact that special constraints (dying before being capable of that choice) preclude some from this choice does not imply that offering the rest of us a choice is suboptimal, or that the result for the infant is suboptimal. Two related factors could be the natural order and justice. For example, God could make infants or the severely mentally handicapped invincible, but that would require extensive and frequent violations of the natural order. Barring that, it seems unreasonable to condemn them without a choice, leaving salvation without a choice as the optimal solution.

    As stated before, the bottom line is that we just do not know enough about the precise way in which God deals with the special case you brought up to draw any conclusions regarding optimality. However, if a good God exists, He will handle this case optimally.

  5. The first section:

    I don’t think that the analogy is faulty, but your distinction is helpful. We can will to fly but do not have the ability to fly. So it could follow that we can will to do evil but do not have the ability to do so. I suppose that if disobeying god is always evil, then it would follow that we would also not have the ability to disobey God. Your claim seems to be that this is too undesirable to God. Yet, this seems to be the case for heaven, therefore it can’t be completely undesirable to God.

    However, I also made another suggestion in my post: “God could have created humanity with an inherent moral sense to choose good acts over evil acts. In other words, God could have created humans to be perfectly moral in and of themselves without sacrificing all of our free will.”

    In other words, God could have created us smart enough to choose good most, if not all, the time not just merely “discern” good from evil.

    From what I can understand, Christian theology seems to be based on the premise that God set us up to fail and then will punish us for that failure unless we ask Him to forgive us for doing what He set us up to do in the first place.

    The second section:

    Okay, I suppose that I do not see any difference between “knowing” good and evil and “discerning” good from evil. The story itself seems to suggest that the tree does represent the actual knowledge itself, as demonstrated by the innocence of Adam and Eve prior to taking its fruit. Plus the text also says (via the serpent) that their “eyes would be opened” and they would be like God, knowing good and evil. God confirms the serpent’s interpretation later, saying, “‘See, the man has become like one of us, knowing good and evil.” They have gained an aspect of divinity not merely become a bit more discerning. This is a huge deal, because if they ate the other fruit they would become gods themselves.

    You then said that if “one insists on interpreting the Bible through the assumption that it is a primitive and absurd book…”

    I make no such assumption. Rather, that is a conclusion that I reached upon reading the story and then considering its historical context. Within that context, it does seem very much like other primitive mythological attempts to explain certain aspects of humanity by ancient peoples. The heavy theologizing that Christians layer on top of this text seem to obscure or gloss over the more primitive aspects of it.

    • – Limited Freedom –

      Here again I think your analogy proves to be faulty. The ability to fly is a highly specialized, physical ability which requires specialized equipment. Unlike the ability to fly, the ability to do evil is a very broad, general ability which is essentially a misuse of potentially any primary ability we possess. For example, one can shake hands with a friend or punch him in the nose. Therefore, evil is not a specialized, limitable ability as flying is, but a general misuse of any ability one possesses. Therefore, the only conceivable way God could have given us the will to evil but not the ability to do evil would have been to remove our ability to do pretty much anything.

      Regarding heaven, I provided extensive analysis refuting the idea that heavenly and earthly states are perfectly independent, implying that if heaven is desirable God could not simply have made the world that way.

      – Programmed “Freedom” –

      In other words, God could have pre-programmed us (like Asimov’s robots) to only do good. This seems like a mechanism for your limited freedom to me, rather than a solution to the problem of freedom allowing evil as you suggest.

      – Set up to Fail –

      The accusation that God “set us up” (the bomb?) implies that God desired or caused our failure. The Christian view is that God desired Adam and Eve to do the right thing, but mercifully provided forgiveness for their wrong choice, and so it is with us.

      – Discerning v. Knowing –

      The difference between knowing and discerning has to do with self-determination. True knowledge concerns that which is true, that is what is right and wrong absolutely (God’s Law). Discerning good and evil is relative to self-determination, what one decides on one’s own is good and evil.

      Furthermore, God does not say that eating of the tree of life would make them fully divine. He merely says they would live forever. That would not make them equal with God.

      – Claim of a Primitive Bible –

      You may have supporting reasons for your conclusion, but within the context of our discussion, you have not presented them. Therefore, relative to this discussion, your claim is not a conclusion, it is an unsupported claim. You may have presented your reasons elsewhere. If so, feel free to reference them.

      • “In other words, God could have pre-programmed us (like Asimov’s robots) to only do good. This seems like a mechanism for your limited freedom to me, rather than a solution to the problem of freedom allowing evil as you suggest.”

        And what’s wrong with this solution? What is wrong with being inherently morally good creatures?

        “The accusation that God “set us up” (the bomb?) implies that God desired or caused our failure.”

        Yes, that is the implication. Although Yahweh may just have been a slightly incompetent deity. The set up is clear. You take two morally ignorant people, two big temptations, and one loud mouth serpent, and shake them up. The serpent, by the way, is the only one that actually tells Eve the truth – not Yahweh. Yahweh tells them that they will eat and then die. The serpent says, no, you will eat and your eyes will be open and you will be like God. Which happened? Well, the latter is what happened. The serpent called Yahweh out on His deception.

        “Discerning good and evil is relative to self-determination, what one decides on one’s own is good and evil.”

        Okay. But that is not what is implied in the story. They have THE knowledge of good and evil and become more like the gods.

        “Furthermore, God does not say that eating of the tree of life would make them fully divine.”

        It is in the Bible. Gen. 22 “Then the Lord God said, ‘See, the man has become like one of us, knowing good and evil; and now, he might reach out his hand and take also from the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever’”

        Wisdom and immortality. The two divine attributes in antiquity.

        “You may have presented your reasons elsewhere. If so, feel free to reference them.”

        I have and I will: http://www.anatheist.net/articles/the-bible-history/the-bible-history-creation-part-2/

  6. All right. So what would be the problem with having every human infant just be born directly into heaven?

    It isn’t that humans wouldn’t have free will.

    It isn’t that humans would be disappointed in heaven.

    It isn’t that God is sad about humans in heaven.

    So… why does God let people be born on earth where there is suffering, instead of having every human be born in heaven?

  7. As I argued in my previous comment, the fault in your argument is that you assume that the possible solutions listed for infants that die are unconditionally optimal and therefore, if they work for infants, ought to be applied universally rather than to a special subset of the population. Rather, it seems probably that the solutions listed for infants that die are conditionally optimal solutions to an edge case in a sinful world. God desires people to choose Him, but within the natural order, some die before they are capable of making that choice. It is within those parameters these solutions are posited and therefore jumping to the conclusion that they are unconditionally applicable is unwarranted.

  8. James:

    – Programmed Goodness –

    The problem with your solution is that it does not really allow for freewill. Indeed, one might argue that “goodness” only makes sense in terms for freewill. If there is no choice, one simply is. One is neither good nor evil. Therefore, your solution does not reconcile freedom and lack of sin.

    – The Serpent’s Lie –

    God did indeed tell the truth. Biblically, man is understood to be an immortal soul. As such, death is not always the death of the body, but is generally understood to be a separation (in a similar way, a parent who disowns a child describes that child as “dead to me”). Therefore, when God told Adam that in the day he ate the fruit He would surely die (the Hebrew word for death occurs twice), God was telling Adam that He would suffer separation. The day they ate the fruit, they suffered separation from God by sin. As a result, they were cast out of the garden and separated from the tree of life, condemning them not only to separation from God (spiritual death), but eventually to physical death (separation from the body). Therefore, God did not lie and the serpent did indeed lie when he denied the consequences God had laid out, saying “ye shall not surely die”.

    – Discerning or Knowing Evil –

    You seem to miss my point. I am not making up some allegorical interpretation. I am presenting an alternative literal interpretation of the word generally translated “knowledge”, which, if true, renders the implication of the story to be different from what you insist it is. If my interpretation is correct, the implication of the story is indeed that they would choose their own moral standard in defiance of God.

    – Divinity –

    It seems to me here that you are reading too much into the text. The text merely states that they had become like God in a certain respect (“knowing/discerning good and evil”) and that in the garden they would be immortal. The verse does not say that man had received all divine wisdom.

    – Is the Bible “Primitive”? –

    Thanks for the link. It seems to me that your article “The Bible & History: Creation” essentially provides two argument in favor of a “primitive” and easily conflicting view of the authorship of Genesis.

    First, you argue that there are two creation accounts by separate authors in Genesis. This is not well supported. First, my understanding is that Hebrew narrative itself tends to use repetition, particularly to emphasis and provide more detail. As such, Genesis 1-2 can easily be understood to represent a single creation account, beginning with a universal emphasis (Gen. 1-2:4) and repeating and expanding on a particular segment with an emphasis on human creation (the rest of Gen 2), a change in emphasis which may easily account for stylistic changes as well.

    Finally, you argue that the Genesis account shares mythic similarities with other ancient works and therefore should be interpreted in light of the material which they borrow. Unfortunately, implicit in this argument is the assumptions that Genesis borrows from these accounts and not vice versa and what the ancients that produced the other works believed must have been similar to what those who produced the Genesis account believed. Your article does not substantially support either of these assumptions. This is a road we have been down before [1-5].

    [1] http://www.anatheist.net/2008/09/is-jesus-unique-or-original/
    [2] http://arthenor.wordpress.com/2008/10/03/jesus-et-al/
    [3] http://arthenor.wordpress.com/2008/10/10/more-on-faith/
    [4] http://www.anatheist.net/2008/10/god-the-great-communicator/
    [5] http://arthenor.wordpress.com/2008/11/03/christianity-historical-records-and-occams-razor/

    • “The problem with your solution is that it does not really allow for freewill.”

      Yes it does. It allows for plenty of choices, albeit a subset of the choices that one would have if he or she could choose to commit evil. Is there free will in heaven? If so, then can humans commit evil in heaven? If they can’t, then how is that any different from what I am suggesting? If there is no free will in heaven, then clearly God must not ultimately prefer freedom over not.

      “God did indeed tell the truth. Biblically, man is understood to be an immortal soul.”

      Then you will have to support that biblically. Nonetheless, Yahweh says that they will die in that day. He does not say that they will be separated from them. He does not say that their spirits will die and that their body will not. In that day they will die. The serpent replies, (1) In that day you shall not die and (2) Instead, your eyes will be opened and you will know good from evil. Both (1) and (2) are true in the context of the story. Yahweh deceived Adam and Eve, not the serpent.

      “You seem to miss my point.”

      I did not miss your point. I rejected your interpretation based on the text itself.

      “The verse does not say that man had received all divine wisdom.”

      Like I said and argued elsewhere, I interpret the two trees in the garden as symbolic of the two divine attributes as understood in the ancient world. That’s it.

      “First, you argue that there are two creation accounts by separate authors in Genesis. This is not well supported.”

      It is very well supported (as Richard Freidman amply demonstrates in his book that I reference). Indeed, it is the common understanding among biblical scholars.

      “Finally, you argue that the Genesis account shares mythic similarities with other ancient works and therefore should be interpreted in light of the material which they borrow.”

      I am not implicating any purposeful borrowing in either direction. Rather, as an historian I recognize that the authors of the Bible lived in a certain period of time where there were common and shared mythic traditions and these were freely passed down through time and across cultures. When you place Genesis within the context of other ancient near eastern myths you do find many similarities and much overlap. Since the Sumerian and Babylonian traditions are older than Genesis, then they represent an older tradition from which Genesis may have grown. Given that, there are many parallels which on could describe as “primitive” – especially in Genesis 2. Genesis 1 seems to represent a later and less primitive re-telling of Creation, with a abstract cosmic God versus a God that walks through the garden in the cool of the day.

      • – Asimov’s Humans –

        Throughout scripture, the kinds of choices God values are moral choices. Hence, the test of the tree of knowledge of good and evil, the testing of Job, etc. Therefore, it seems that the reason God would give us freewill is so that we can choose to do what is right. Programming moral perfection into us would then remove the primary source of value for freewill.

        The argument that if limited freewill is fine in heaven it should be fine on earth is one that the Conversational Atheist made as well. However, the primary argument I have made is precisely that that does not work because ideal goodness is predicated upon choice. Because the existence of choice simultaneously allows evil, the only way to have choice and perfection is to have them at different times. That is, choice simultaneous with allowed evil (our current world) precedes a perfect world, where good is made valuable by choice in the fallen world. Within that premise, you can not have one without the other. Removal of the fallen world inherently devalues the ideal world.

        – Immortal Soul –

        Examples in the Old Testament include Job 19:25-27, Ps. 49:15, Daniel 12:2, which reveal a hope of redemption from the grave through God and the alternative of eternal judgement (Daniel). Throughout the New Testament, Jesus repeatedly promises eternal life to those who believe in Him and the concept of eternal judgement is also repeated, as in Revelation 20:12-15. Thus, the Bible teaches not only life after death, but eternal life after death.

        – Eden Deceiver –

        (1) is only true if one ignores spiritual death. If spiritual death is a proper understanding of the passage, the serpent lied.

        – Discerning or Knowing –

        To reject my interpretation based on the text itself is to assume your interpretation is correct. In other words, I am saying the text means A, you say it means B. Each claim must be independently justified. To argue that A is false because B is true is circular reasoning.

        I have provided significant justification for my interpretation including:

        1 – Examination of the original Hebrew word
        2 – Comparison of how the different interpretations work in the text and argued that my interpretation makes more sense.

        What I see you arguing in support of your interpretation is primarily this:

        - My interpretation is wrong because it contradicts yours.

        This argument is, in fact, circular because it presupposes your interpretation is correct without engaging my supporting arguments or presenting supporting arguments of its own.

        – Divinity –

        Given the rest of your interpretation of the text, that is not an unreasonable conclusion. However, arguing that your interpretation in some way disproves or discredits Christianity implies that you consider your interpretation not simply to be one reasonable understanding of the text among many, but sufficiently certain to discredit other possible interpretations. I am not arguing that your view is necessarily wrong or utterly incoherent, but merely pointing out that there are also good reasons to accept an alternative view.

        – Genesis Account(s) –

        I will gladly read anything you have said on the topic and consider reading relatively brief works which are freely available which you may be willing to reference. However, I have neither the money nor the time to read every extended work or book someone brings up. I appreciate that you were willing to invest the time to read the book and found it persuasive, but I’m not going to read it and I’m not going to take your word for it.

        I am also highly skeptical of references to a majority or common consensus, especially regarding “Biblical scholars”. First, I am not particularly interested in the opinions or conclusions of others, but in their reasons for reaching those conclusions. Second, it has been said, “There are three kinds of lies: lies, damned lies, and statistics.” That is not to say statistics or consensus is useless, but that one needs to be careful with the interpretation of them. For example, what is your source of this claim that it is the “common understanding”? Are you simply surveying the works you have read? Repeating what may have been merely an expert’s impression? Who is considered to be a Biblical scholar? Anyone who studies the Bible professionally? Anyone with a certain level of degree related to Biblical studies? Only those which apply certain methods considered “scholarly”? Only secular scholars or are Christian scholars included? These and other considerations generally render any simple statement of the form “x is generally/commonly/mostly/x% held among group y” meaningless, even if one is inclined to accept an expert consensus as a conclusive argument, which I am not inclined to do.

        – Ancient Context –

        It seems to me that the distinction you are making between Genesis 1 & 2 of a transcendent (abstract, cosmic) God and a primitive (personal, walks through the garden) God is a particularly key and noteworthy distinction, especially when they are placed together. A primary premise in Christianity is that these concepts are not mutually exclusive. God may be a transcendent being, but He also cares about us. Not only did the Word create all that is, but He came and dwelt among us in the flesh. Genesis 1 & 2 presents a similar dynamic to John 1, in which a transcendent God creates all things, but is also willing to walk in the garden with man.

        While it may be reasonable to conclude that Genesis 1-2 represents two accounts from separate traditions which John later synthesized, it seems at least equally reasonable to me to draw the opposite conclusion: that Genesis 1-2 is a single account which illustrates this central synthesis which John later drew upon.

        Regarding barrowing, the religious interpretation you are employing is a naturalistic one in which religious beliefs are spontaneously created by human beings, without divine intervention, and then developed and added to by the imagination of others. This being the case, any attempt to interpret the traditions of one religion (A) through the tradition of another religion (B) implies the former is in someway borrowing conceptually form the latter (A borrows from B). Conversely, the premise of most religions regarding religious history is that their religion is primarily based on initial or independent divine revelation which was borrowed or added to by other religions.

        Therefore, assuming the former begins with an assumption of naturalism and implies conceptual borrowing, in this case, from Babylonian and Sumarian to Jewish religious views. Claiming that the borrowing may not have been “purposeful” or that the view was simply “common and shared” at the time” ignores the origin of the view. The point here is that you are essentially claiming that at some point, one person invented this concept of wisdom and immortality as the divine attributes, which was incorporated into Sumarian and Babylonian tradition which later influenced Jewish tradition, which must be the case in order to interpret Jewish tradition via Babylonain and Sumarian tradition. Put simply, your claim is that Jewish tradition borrowed this human idea as presented in Babylonian and Sumerian tradition and therefore the account should not be understood in other terms, such as, divine revelation, directly discrediting Jewish and Christian faith.


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